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To prepare for the Symantec 250-580 exam, candidates can take advantage of various training resources that are available online. Symantec offers a range of training courses, including classroom-based training, virtual training, and self-paced courses. Additionally, candidates can access online forums, study guides, and practice exams to help them prepare for the exam.
The Symantec 250-580 exam consists of 65 multiple choice questions and has a duration of 105 minutes. 250-580 Exam covers a wide range of topics such as installation and configuration of Symantec Endpoint Security Complete, managing policies, threat analysis and remediation, and reporting. 250-580 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge of best practices in administering and managing endpoint security solutions.
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Symantec 250-580 exam is an essential certification for IT professionals who want to demonstrate their skills in administering Symantec Endpoint Security Complete. 250-580 exam covers a wide range of topics and requires candidates to have a deep understanding of the product. By passing 250-580 Exam, candidates can show their employers that they have the knowledge and skills necessary to manage Symantec Endpoint Security Complete effectively.
Symantec Endpoint Security Complete - Administration R2 Sample Questions (Q33-Q38):
NEW QUESTION # 33
What version number is assigned to a duplicated policy?
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a policy is duplicated in Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), the duplicated policy is assigned a version number of "One". This means that the new policy starts fresh with a version number of 1, separate from the original policy's version history. The SEP system uses this new version number to track any subsequent changes to the duplicated policy independently of the original.
References: This is consistent with SEP's policy management approach, where versioning for duplicated policies starts anew at 1 to ensure clarity in tracking policy versions.
NEW QUESTION # 34
In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?
Answer: C
Explanation:
To integrateSymantec Endpoint Detection and Response (SEDR)withSymantec Endpoint Protection (SEP)effectively, the recommended configuration order isECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy.
* Order of Configuration:
* ECC (Endpoint Communication Channel): This establishes the communication layer for SEDR and SEP integration, which is foundational for data exchange.
* Synapse: This integration uses data from ECC to correlate threat intelligence and provide context to detected threats.
* Insight Proxy: Configured last, Insight Proxy adds cloud-based file reputation lookups, enhancing detection capabilities with reputation scoring.
* Why This Order is Effective:
* Each component builds on the previous one, maximizing the value of integration by ensuring that foundational communication (ECC) is established before adding Synapse correlation and Insight Proxy reputation data.
References: Configuring ECC, Synapse, and Insight Proxy in this order is considered best practice for optimizing integration benefits between SEDR and SEP.
NEW QUESTION # 35
What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR), theEntity Dumpfeature provides detailed activity recorder data related to a specific file hash. This data is essential for understanding the behavior and origin of a suspicious file, as well as tracking its activity across endpoints. Here's how it works:
* Hash-Based Search:The EDR solution allows the administrator to search by file hash, which helps retrieve a history of the file's interactions and activities.
* Entity Dump Retrieval:Selecting the Entity Dump option provides comprehensive data, including process execution, file modification, network connections, and other endpoint interactions related to the file.
* Enhanced Threat Analysis:By analyzing this information, the administrator gains insights into how the threat may have propagated, aiding in containment and mitigation efforts.
The Entity Dump is thus a vital tool in forensic analysis, providing detailed endpoint activity data for specified file hashes.
NEW QUESTION # 36
What is the maximum number of endpoints a single SEDR Manager can support?
Answer: B
Explanation:
A singleSymantec Endpoint Detection and Response (SEDR) Managercan support up to100,000 endpoints. This maximum capacity allows the SEDR Manager to handle endpoint data processing, monitoring, and response for large-scale environments.
* Scalability and Management:
* SEDR Manager is designed to manage endpoint security for extensive networks efficiently.
Supporting up to 100,000 endpoints provides enterprises with a centralized solution for comprehensive threat detection and response.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* 200,000endpoints (Option A) exceeds the designed capacity.
* 25,000and50,000endpoints (Options B and D) are below the actual maximum capacity for a single SEDR Manager.
References: This endpoint capacity aligns with Symantec's specifications for SEDR's scalability in enterprise deployments.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?
Answer: A
Explanation:
TheExfiltrationstage in the threat lifecycle is when attackers attempt togather and transfer valuable data from a compromised system to an external location under their control. This stage typically follows data discovery and involves:
* Data Collection:Attackers collect sensitive information such as credentials, financial data, or intellectual property.
* Data Transfer:The data is then transferred out of the organization's network to the attacker's servers, often through encrypted channels to avoid detection.
* Significant Impact on Security and Privacy:Successful exfiltration can lead to substantial security and privacy violations, emphasizing the importance of detection and prevention mechanisms.
Exfiltration is a critical stage in a cyber attack, where valuable data is removed, posing a significant risk to the compromised organization.
NEW QUESTION # 38
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